CSS International Law MCQs

This comprehensive set of MCQs on International Law for the Central Superior Services (CSS) examination is designed to cover all major topics outlined in the CSS syllabus. Exploring key areas such as the sources and principles of international law, treaties, state sovereignty, human rights, and international organizations, these MCQs aim to provide aspiring CSS candidates with a foundational understanding of the legal frameworks governing international relations.

Who should practice CSS International Law MCQs?

Candidates preparing for the CSS examination who want to deepen their understanding of international legal norms, diplomatic relations, and treaty obligations.
Individuals interested in learning about international organizations like the United Nations, as well as key legal issues such as war, peace, and human rights, essential for civil services roles.
University students focusing on high-yield topics like the law of the sea, jurisdiction, state responsibility, and humanitarian law, which are crucial for the CSS International Law syllabus.
Anyone seeking to strengthen their analytical skills in interpreting international statutes and understanding their implications for global governance and diplomacy.
Students dedicated to mastering international law to excel in competitive exams and pursue careers in foreign service, international organizations, or global policy advisory.

1. The primary basis of International Law is:

A) Religious norms
B) Sovereign equality of states
C) Customary practices
D) Domestic legislation

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2. Who is considered the “father” of modern International Law?

A) John Locke
B) Hugo Grotius
C) Immanuel Kant
D) Jean Bodin

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3. The principle of “Pacta sunt servanda” signifies:

A) Treaties must be honored
B) Sovereignty of states
C) Non-intervention
D) Equal power distribution

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4. The emergence of International Law is attributed to:

A) The Treaty of Versailles
B) The Peace of Westphalia
C) The Vienna Convention
D) The UN Charter

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5. The Nation-State system was formally recognized through the:

A) Treaty of Paris
B) Treaty of Westphalia
C) Magna Carta
D) Congress of Vienna

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6. Which concept best describes the enforcement of International Law?

A) Coercion by powerful states
B) Voluntary compliance by states
C) Military force
D) Judicial enforcement

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7. The main weakness of International Law is often said to be:

A) Over-reliance on treaties
B) Lack of enforcement mechanisms
C) Excessive regulation
D) Limitation on state sovereignty

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8. The effectiveness of International Law depends largely on:

A) Judicial interpretation
B) Willingness of states to comply
C) Power of the UN Security Council
D) Economic strength of states

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9. The future of International Law is predicted to focus more on:

A) Territorial sovereignty
B) Global cooperation and human rights
C) Individual state power
D) Reduction in treaty-making

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10. Material sources of International Law include:

A) Constitutions of states
B) Treaties, customs, and general principles of law
C) Military agreements
D) Domestic laws

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11. Article 38 of the ICJ Statute lists which of the following as a primary source of International Law?

A) Diplomatic relations
B) Judicial decisions
C) International customs
D) Internal laws of states

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12. Soft Law in International Law refers to:

A) Binding agreements
B) Non-binding resolutions and declarations
C) Military interventions
D) Customary practices

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13. The concept of “dualism” in International Law suggests that:

A) Domestic law and international law are distinct
B) Treaties automatically apply as law
C) Domestic laws override treaties
D) International laws supersede state laws

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14. Which of the following best describes the concept of “monism” in International Law?

A) Separation of domestic and international laws
B) Integration of international law into domestic law
C) Military law dominance
D) Absolute sovereignty of states

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15. A recognized state in International Law requires:

A) Defined territory, government, population, and sovereignty
B) Military power
C) Support from other states
D) A democratic system

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16. The recognition of a government under International Law is:

A) Automatic upon election
B) Granted through customary practices
C) Not mandatory for states
D) Guaranteed by the UN

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17. A treaty is formally defined as:

A) An informal understanding
B) A binding agreement between states
C) A military agreement
D) An internal policy

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18. The Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties was adopted in:

A) 1950
B) 1969
C) 1945
D) 1992

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19. Treaty obligations under the Vienna Convention apply to:

A) Individuals
B) Corporations
C) States
D) NGOs

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20. A treaty becomes void if:

A) It is breached once
B) Consent was obtained by force
C) A state disagrees with its provisions
D) The treaty affects only one state

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21. Disputes between states can be resolved through:

A) Force
B) Mediation and negotiation
C) Economic sanctions only
D) Isolation

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22. Arbitration as a method of dispute resolution involves:

A) Diplomatic negotiations
B) A neutral third-party decision
C) Economic pressure
D) Military intervention

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23. The International Court of Justice (ICJ) resolves disputes between:

A) Private individuals
B) Corporations
C) Sovereign states
D) Non-state entities

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24. International Humanitarian Law governs:

A) Economic relations
B) Conduct in armed conflict
C) Trade agreements
D) Diplomatic immunity

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25. The Geneva Conventions are primarily concerned with:

A) Trade regulations
B) Human rights during peacetime
C) Protections in armed conflict
D) Nuclear disarmament

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26. POWs (Prisoners of War) must be treated according to:

A) Local customs
B) Rules set by the Geneva Conventions
C) The domestic law of captors
D) Discretion of the detaining power

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27. The right to self-defense in International Law is established under:

A) Article 1 of the UN Charter
B) Article 51 of the UN Charter
C) Geneva Conventions
D) ICJ rulings

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28. The primary purpose of the UN Security Council is:

A) Economic development
B) Maintain international peace and security
C) Cultural promotion
D) Environmental regulation

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29. Territorial sovereignty of a state refers to:

A) Full control over its territory
B) Restricted control by international norms
C) Limited control over resources
D) No control over its land

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30. State responsibility in International Law involves:

A) Only internal matters
B) Accountability for breaches of obligations
C) Regulating private conduct
D) Providing military aid

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31. Jurisdiction of a state can be exercised over:

A) Its territory and citizens abroad
B) Only its territory
C) Only international waters
D) All areas

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32. The concept of “state succession” refers to:

A) Inheritance laws
B) Transfer of rights and obligations from one state to another
C) Economic dominance
D) Citizenship transfer

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33. Diplomatic envoys are entitled to:

A) Absolute immunity
B) Diplomatic immunity as per international agreements
C) No special privileges
D) Only local immunity

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34. Neutrality in times of war is defined as:

A) Choosing sides
B) Declining participation in hostilities
C) Economic sanctions
D) Military support

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35. The law of neutrality in International Law requires:

A) States to support allies
B) States to refrain from supporting belligerents
C) Neutral states to provide arms
D) Automatic involvement

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36. The term “jus cogens” in International Law refers to:

A) Non-binding principles
B) Peremptory norms that no state may violate
C) Customary practices
D) Unilateral treaties

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37. An example of a jus cogens norm is:

A) Sovereign immunity
B) Prohibition of genocide
C) Diplomatic immunity
D) Military intervention

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38. In International Law, “persona non grata” means:

A) Diplomatic immunity
B) An unwelcome person
C) A neutral state
D) A person with special status

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39. The “territorial sea” of a state extends up to:

A) 3 nautical miles
B) 6 nautical miles
C) 12 nautical miles
D) 24 nautical miles

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40. The principle of non-intervention is primarily associated with:

A) Environmental law
B) Sovereignty and state equality
C) Free trade
D) Military treaties

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41. The United Nations Charter was adopted in:

A) 1942
B) 1945
C) 1950
D) 1960

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42. The main objective of the International Criminal Court (ICC) is to:

A) Resolve territorial disputes
B) Prosecute individuals for international crimes
C) Enforce trade agreements
D) Provide military aid

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43. The principle of “ex aequo et bono” allows judges to:

A) Enforce treaties only
B) Decide based on fairness rather than strict law
C) Limit state sovereignty
D) Rely on customary practices exclusively

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44. The term “erga omnes” obligations means obligations:

A) Toward another state only
B) Toward specific countries
C) Toward the international community as a whole
D) Toward international organizations only

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45. The Geneva Conventions cover the protection of:

A) Civilians only
B) Military combatants only
C) Wounded and sick, POWs, and civilians in conflict
D) Economic resources

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46. International Environmental Law primarily aims to:

A) Regulate trade
B) Protect diplomatic immunity
C) Prevent and manage environmental harm
D) Promote economic development

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47. The main body responsible for drafting international laws is:

A) International Court of Justice
B) United Nations General Assembly
C) United Nations International Law Commission
D) United Nations Security Council

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48. The UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) establishes:

A) Military zones only
B) Territorial boundaries and maritime rights
C) Diplomatic immunity
D) Trade tariffs

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49. Which of the following is a primary function of the United Nations Security Council?

A) Drafting economic treaties
B) Maintaining international peace and security
C) Promoting cultural exchange
D) Conducting scientific research

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50. The doctrine of “Hot Pursuit” allows a state to:

A) Pursue criminals into another country
B) Chase criminals on the high seas
C) Pursue economic opportunities
D) Establish foreign bases

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51. The International Law Commission (ILC) was established by:

A) The Hague Convention
B) The UN General Assembly
C) The International Court of Justice
D) The Vienna Convention

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52. International conventions are:

A) Optional agreements
B) Customary laws
C) Formal treaties or agreements between states
D) Domestic laws

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53. In International Law, a reservation to a treaty means:

A) A state accepts all treaty terms unconditionally
B) A state modifies or excludes certain treaty provisions
C) The treaty is considered invalid
D) The treaty has no effect

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54. Under the UN Charter, who has the primary responsibility for maintaining international peace?

A) International Court of Justice
B) UN Security Council
C) UN General Assembly
D) International Monetary Fund

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55. Which body is empowered to interpret the UN Charter?

A) The General Assembly
B) The Security Council
C) The International Court of Justice
D) The International Criminal Court

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56. The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations was adopted in:

A) 1950
B) 1961
C) 1945
D) 1970

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57. Diplomatic immunity is:

A) A form of limited immunity
B) Complete immunity from legal action
C) Subject to local laws
D) Applicable only in times of war

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58. A breach of diplomatic immunity may lead to:

A) Diplomatic recall
B) Military action
C) Economic sanctions
D) Revocation of citizenship

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59. The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is based in:

A) Geneva
B) New York
C) The Hague
D) London

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60. “Opinio juris” in International Law refers to:

A) General state practice
B) Belief that a practice is legally obligatory
C) Non-binding state practices
D) Territorial sovereignty

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61. Which legal instrument grants immunity to Heads of State from prosecution abroad?

A) Geneva Conventions
B) Diplomatic conventions
C) Customary international law
D) UN Charter

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62. The concept of humanitarian intervention allows:

A) Use of force to support human rights
B) Military action in self-defense only
C) Intervention for economic reasons
D) Diplomatic negotiations only

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63. The primary objective of the Geneva Conventions is:

A) Regulate state borders
B) Provide rules for warfare protection
C) Promote economic sanctions
D) Secure diplomatic immunity

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64. Which principle prohibits the threat or use of force against territorial integrity?

A) Non-intervention
B) Sovereign equality
C) Collective security
D) UN Charter principles

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65. The International Criminal Tribunal for the former Yugoslavia (ICTY) was established to:

A) Try state disputes
B) Prosecute war crimes and crimes against humanity
C) Resolve environmental issues
D) Enforce trade agreements

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66. The UN Convention Against Torture was adopted in:

A) 1945
B) 1984
C) 1969
D) 2001

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67. Which body primarily enforces international human rights laws?

A) International Court of Justice
B) United Nations Human Rights Council
C) World Trade Organization
D) International Maritime Organization

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68. “State immunity” allows a state to:

A) Violate international treaties
B) Avoid prosecution in foreign courts
C) Enforce international decisions
D) Avoid trade agreements

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69. “Sovereign equality” in International Law signifies:

A) All states have equal rights and duties
B) Major states have more rights
C) No duties are obligatory
D) Only developed countries have rights

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70. The main function of the World Trade Organization (WTO) is to:

A) Enforce human rights
B) Regulate international trade
C) Maintain world peace
D) Resolve environmental issues

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71. In International Law, “pacta sunt servanda” means:

A) Agreements must be kept
B) Only powerful states enforce treaties
C) Treaties can be ignored
D) Agreements are not binding

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72. The principle of “aut dedere aut judicare” in international law refers to:

A) Deporting criminals
B) Either extraditing or prosecuting offenders
C) Applying diplomatic immunity
D) Engaging in military intervention

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73. International humanitarian law applies in:

A) Only domestic conflicts
B) Armed conflicts, both international and non-international
C) Economic disputes
D) Diplomatic discussions

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74. The concept of “terra nullius” refers to:

A) Shared territory between states
B) Land without an owner
C) International waters
D) Sovereign land

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75. The United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC) was adopted in:

A) 1950
B) 1966
C) 1989
D) 2000

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76. The purpose of the Rome Statute is to:

A) Establish trade regulations
B) Govern diplomatic practices
C) Establish the International Criminal Court
D) Settle territorial disputes

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77. The principle of “uti possidetis” helps establish:

A) Diplomatic immunity
B) Economic treaties
C) Territorial borders after decolonization
D) Maritime boundaries

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78. Which of the following is a key document in human rights law?

A) The Treaty of Versailles
B) The Universal Declaration of Human Rights
C) The Hague Conventions
D) The Geneva Conventions

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79. The International Tribunal for Rwanda (ICTR) was established to address:

A) Economic issues
B) Human rights abuses during the Rwandan Genocide
C) Maritime disputes
D) Environmental issues

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80. In the International Court of Justice, a “dissenting opinion” is:

A) A majority opinion
B) A separate opinion of a judge who disagrees with the majority
C) A ruling
D) The final verdict

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81. The concept of “humanitarian intervention” is controversial because:

A) It conflicts with state sovereignty
B) It is widely accepted
C) It promotes economic interests
D) It only applies to armed conflicts

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82. The 1951 Refugee Convention outlines the rights of:

A) Migrant workers
B) Internally displaced persons
C) Asylum seekers and refugees
D) Stateless persons

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83. The term “de facto recognition” refers to:

A) Full legal recognition
B) Temporary recognition without full legality
C) Military recognition
D) No recognition

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84. A state’s right to exclusive control over its internal affairs is termed as:

A) Territorial sovereignty
B) Diplomatic immunity
C) Territorial integrity
D) Non-recognition

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85. “Asylum” in international law refers to:

A) The right to seek shelter in any state
B) Protection granted by a state to a foreign national facing persecution
C) Diplomatic immunity
D) A state’s right to invade other territories

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86. The United Nations Convention against Corruption was adopted in:

A) 1990
B) 2003
C) 1985
D) 2010

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87. Which of the following is a feature of “state responsibility” in international law?

A) States are responsible only for their citizens
B) States may be held liable for internationally wrongful acts
C) Only citizens can hold states accountable
D) States are exempt from legal responsibility

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88. Which principle is violated when one state attacks another without provocation?

A) Sovereignty
B) Non-aggression
C) Diplomatic immunity
D) Exclusive jurisdiction

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89. The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations provides that diplomatic agents:

A) Can be detained by the host state
B) Are inviolable and immune from arrest
C) Are exempt from only minor laws
D) Can be tried for crimes

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90. The “High Seas” as defined in the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea are:

A) Open to all states
B) Restricted to coastal states
C) Controlled by powerful states
D) Owned by the United Nations

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91. Which of the following is the main principle behind “Universal Jurisdiction”?

A) Jurisdiction based on territory only
B) Jurisdiction over certain crimes regardless of where they occur
C) Jurisdiction over diplomatic cases only
D) Jurisdiction over domestic crimes

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92. The term “belligerent occupation” refers to:

A) Peaceful occupation of foreign territory
B) Temporary control over foreign territory during conflict
C) Diplomatic immunity
D) Economic sanctions

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93. The purpose of “environmental impact assessments” in international law is to:

A) Regulate trade
B) Protect public health only
C) Evaluate environmental risks of proposed activities
D) Limit state sovereignty

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94. In cases of state succession, the principle of “clean slate” refers to:

A) Automatic inheritance of treaties
B) Renouncing prior obligations and treaties
C) Partial adoption of prior treaties
D) Only adopting economic treaties

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95. The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) is monitored by:

A) The United Nations Security Council
B) The Human Rights Committee
C) The International Court of Justice
D) The World Trade Organization

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96. In international law, the term “expropriation” typically refers to:

A) State-sponsored deportation
B) Forcible takeover of foreign nationals’ property by a state
C) Granting asylum
D) Economic embargo

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97. The principle of “non-refoulement” protects:

A) States from economic sanctions
B) Refugees from being returned to a country where they face persecution
C) Military forces
D) Diplomatic envoys

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98. Which doctrine allows the use of force in self-defense if an armed attack occurs?

A) The Collective Security doctrine
B) The Self-Defense doctrine under Article 51 of the UN Charter
C) The Diplomatic Protection doctrine
D) The Economic Cooperation doctrine

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99. Under international law, “hot pursuit” permits a state to:

A) Claim foreign territories
B) Follow offenders across borders in certain cases
C) Impose economic sanctions
D) Enforce environmental laws

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100. The primary function of the International Labour Organization (ILO) is to:

A) Promote international trade
B) Establish maritime law
C) Advance social and labor rights
D) Mediate armed conflicts

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